smitty1322
Mechanical
- Mar 21, 2001
- 16
I have noticed a common quesion in this forum lately on the effeciency of a gear train. I have a question to add to this. I am designing a drive for a hospital bed. I have my motor at the performance I need (motor only). I am using a transaxle, much like the electric scooters have, and I am wondering what that will do to my eff? My motor is 70% eff. at the .9 HP and output speed that I need.
Once I put this on my transaxle, my eff. will decrease.
My question is this, will the drop in eff. affect my torque or my speed? For example, say i had a 100% eff motor. Once I put it on any gearbox my eff dropped to 75%. Now,do I lose speed or torque or both through the inefficiencies? If i have a 20:1 gear reduction (motor coupled to pinion driving ring gear coupled to shaft) is my speed should be exactly 20 times less, so I should then be losing torque?
What exactly causes a motor with gearbox to be less eff. than a motor only?
Once I put this on my transaxle, my eff. will decrease.
My question is this, will the drop in eff. affect my torque or my speed? For example, say i had a 100% eff motor. Once I put it on any gearbox my eff dropped to 75%. Now,do I lose speed or torque or both through the inefficiencies? If i have a 20:1 gear reduction (motor coupled to pinion driving ring gear coupled to shaft) is my speed should be exactly 20 times less, so I should then be losing torque?
What exactly causes a motor with gearbox to be less eff. than a motor only?